Question: A 34 year old singer presents to your clinic with near complete aphonia following a recent performance. She notes that she was singing at normal volumes during a practice session and had her voice “break” suddenly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Unilateral vocal fold immobility related to viral infection
b) Singer’s nodules
c) Vocal fold hemorrhage
d) Spasmodic dysphonia
[Answer will be posted with next week's new question]
Answer to last week's question, “Spreading Out” (January 16, 2023)
D - Plexiform neurofibroma.